Terminology Service < Semantic Lookup Platform

All terms in UNIPROT

Label	Id	Description
[Protein ADP-ribosylarginine] hydrolase	P54923	[Function: Specifically acts as a arginine mono-ADP-ribosylhydrolase by mediating the removal of mono-ADP-ribose attached to arginine residues on proteins.]
Spermatogenesis-associated protein 8	Q6RVD6
Methylglutaconyl-CoA hydratase, mitochondrial	Q13825	[Function: Catalyzes the conversion of 3-methylglutaconyl-CoA to 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl-CoA (PubMed:11738050, PubMed:12434311, PubMed:12655555). Also has itaconyl-CoA hydratase activity by converting itaconyl-CoA into citramalyl-CoA in the C5-dicarboxylate catabolism pathway (PubMed:29056341). The C5-dicarboxylate catabolism pathway is required to detoxify itaconate, a vitamin B12-poisoning metabolite (PubMed:29056341). Has very low enoyl-CoA hydratase activity (PubMed:7892223). Was originally identified as RNA-binding protein that binds in vitro to clustered 5'-AUUUA-3' motifs (PubMed:7892223).]
Alpha-soluble NSF attachment protein	P54921	[Function: Required for vesicular transport between the endoplasmic reticulum and the Golgi apparatus. Together with GNA12 promotes CDH5 localization to plasma membrane.]
[Protein ADP-ribosylarginine] hydrolase	P54922	[Function: Specifically acts as a arginine mono-ADP-ribosylhydrolase by mediating the removal of mono-ADP-ribose attached to arginine residues on proteins.]
SWI/SNF-related matrix-associated actin-dependent regulator of chromatin subfamily A containing DEAD/H box 1	D3Z9Z9	[Function: DNA helicase that possesses intrinsic ATP-dependent nucleosome-remodeling activity and is both required for DNA repair and heterochromatin organization. Promotes DNA end resection of double-strand breaks (DSBs) following DNA damage: probably acts by weakening histone DNA interactions in nucleosomes flanking DSBs. Required for the restoration of heterochromatin organization after replication. Acts at replication sites to facilitate the maintenance of heterochromatin by directing H3 and H4 histones deacetylation, H3 'Lys-9' trimethylation (H3K9me3) and restoration of silencing (By similarity).]
BTB/POZ domain-containing adapter for CUL3-mediated RhoA degradation protein 2	Q13829	[Function: Substrate-specific adapter of a BCR (BTB-CUL3-RBX1) E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase complex involved in regulation of cytoskeleton structure. The BCR(TNFAIP1) E3 ubiquitin ligase complex mediates the ubiquitination of RHOA, leading to its degradation by the proteasome, thereby regulating the actin cytoskeleton and cell migration. Its interaction with RHOB may regulate apoptosis. May enhance the PCNA-dependent DNA polymerase delta activity.]
Sodium/calcium exchanger 3	S4R2P9	[Function: Mediates the electrogenic exchange of Ca(2+) against Na(+) ions across the cell membrane, and thereby contributes to the regulation of cytoplasmic Ca(2+) levels and Ca(2+)-dependent cellular processes. Contributes to cellular Ca(2+) homeostasis in excitable cells, both in muscle and in brain (PubMed:14722618, PubMed:21593315). In a first phase, voltage-gated channels mediate the rapid increase of cytoplasmic Ca(2+) levels due to release of Ca(2+) stores from the endoplasmic reticulum. SLC8A3 mediates the export of Ca(2+) from the cell during the next phase, so that cytoplasmic Ca(2+) levels rapidly return to baseline (PubMed:14722618, PubMed:21593315). Contributes to Ca(2+) transport during excitation-contraction coupling in muscle (PubMed:14722618). In neurons, contributes to the rapid decrease of cytoplasmic Ca(2+) levels back to baseline after neuronal activation, and thereby contributes to modulate synaptic plasticity, learning and memory (PubMed:21593315). Required for normal oligodendrocyte differentiation and for normal myelination (PubMed:21959935). Mediates Ca(2+) efflux from mitochondria and contributes to mitochondrial Ca(2+) ion homeostasis (PubMed:24616101). Isoform 1 displays higher calcium exchanger activity than isoform 2, probably because isoform 1 has a lower threshold for activation by cytoplasmic Ca(2+) (PubMed:24616101).]
Alpha-soluble NSF attachment protein	P54920	[Function: Required for vesicular transport between the endoplasmic reticulum and the Golgi apparatus (Probable). Together with GNA12 promotes CDH5 localization to plasma membrane (PubMed:15980433).]
POU domain, class 4, transcription factor 1	Q01851	[Function: Able to act as transcription factor, cannot regulate the expression of the same subset of genes than isoform 1. Does not have antiapoptotic effect on neuronal cells.]
Cerebellar degeneration-related protein 2	Q01850
Transitional endoplasmic reticulum ATPase	Q01853	[Function: Necessary for the fragmentation of Golgi stacks during mitosis and for their reassembly after mitosis. Involved in the formation of the transitional endoplasmic reticulum (tER). The transfer of membranes from the endoplasmic reticulum to the Golgi apparatus occurs via 50-70 nm transition vesicles which derive from part-rough, part-smooth transitional elements of the endoplasmic reticulum (tER). Vesicle budding from the tER is an ATP-dependent process. The ternary complex containing UFD1, VCP and NPLOC4 binds ubiquitinated proteins and is necessary for the export of misfolded proteins from the ER to the cytoplasm, where they are degraded by the proteasome. The NPLOC4-UFD1-VCP complex regulates spindle disassembly at the end of mitosis and is necessary for the formation of a closed nuclear envelope. Regulates E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase activity of RNF19A. Component of the VCP/p97-AMFR/gp78 complex that participates in the final step of the sterol-mediated ubiquitination and endoplasmic reticulum-associated degradation (ERAD) of HMGCR. Involved in endoplasmic reticulum stress-induced pre-emptive quality control, a mechanism that selectively attenuates the translocation of newly synthesized proteins into the endoplasmic reticulum and reroutes them to the cytosol for proteasomal degradation. Plays a role in the regulation of stress granules (SGs) clearance process upon arsenite-induced response (By similarity). Also involved in DNA damage response: recruited to double-strand breaks (DSBs) sites in a RNF8- and RNF168-dependent manner and promotes the recruitment of TP53BP1 at DNA damage sites. Recruited to stalled replication forks by SPRTN: may act by mediating extraction of DNA polymerase eta (POLH) to prevent excessive translesion DNA synthesis and limit the incidence of mutations induced by DNA damage. Required for cytoplasmic retrotranslocation of stressed/damaged mitochondrial outer-membrane proteins and their subsequent proteasomal degradation. Essential for the maturation of ubiquitin-containing autophagosomes and the clearance of ubiquitinated protein by autophagy. Acts as a negative regulator of type I interferon production by interacting with DDX58/RIG-I: interaction takes place when DDX58/RIG-I is ubiquitinated via 'Lys-63'-linked ubiquitin on its CARD domains, leading to recruit RNF125 and promote ubiquitination and degradation of DDX58/RIG-I. May play a role in the ubiquitin-dependent sorting of membrane proteins to lysosomes where they undergo degradation. May more particularly play a role in caveolins sorting in cells. By controlling the steady-state expression of the IGF1R receptor, indirectly regulates the insulin-like growth factor receptor signaling pathway.]
Pleckstrin homology domain-containing family H member 3	Q3B7L1
Amine oxidase [flavin-containing] B	P27338	[Function: Catalyzes the oxidative deamination of biogenic and xenobiotic amines and has important functions in the metabolism of neuroactive and vasoactive amines in the central nervous system and peripheral tissues. MAOB preferentially degrades benzylamine and phenylethylamine.]
Zinc finger and BTB domain-containing protein 7C	A1YPR0	[Function: May be a tumor suppressor gene.]
CD81 antigen	Q62745	[Function: Structural component of specialized membrane microdomains known as tetraspanin-enriched microdomains (TERMs), which act as platforms for receptor clustering and signaling. Essential for trafficking and compartmentalization of CD19 receptor on the surface of activated B cells. Upon initial encounter with microbial pathogens, enables the assembly of CD19-CR2/CD21 and B cell receptor (BCR) complexes at signaling TERMs, lowering the threshold dose of antigen required to trigger B cell clonal expansion and antibody production. In T cells, facilitates the localization of CD247/CD3 zeta at antigen-induced synapses with B cells, providing for costimulation and polarization toward T helper type 2 phenotype. Present in MHC class II compartments, may also play a role in antigen presentation (By similarity). Can act both as positive and negative regulator of homotypic or heterotypic cell-cell fusion processes. Positively regulates sperm-egg fusion and may be involved in acrosome reaction. In myoblasts, associates with CD9 and PTGFRN and inhibits myotube fusion during muscle regeneration (By similarity). In macrophages, associates with CD9 and beta-1 and beta-2 integrins, and prevents macrophage fusion into multinucleated giant cells specialized in ingesting complement-opsonized large particles (By similarity). Also prevents the fusion of mononuclear cell progenitors into osteoclasts in charge of bone resorption (By similarity). May regulate the compartmentalization of enzymatic activities. In T cells, defines the subcellular localization of dNTPase SAMHD1 and permits its degradation by the proteasome, thereby controlling intracellular dNTP levels (By similarity). Also involved in cell adhesion and motility. Positively regulates integrin-mediated adhesion of macrophages, particularly relevant for the inflammatory response in the lung (By similarity).]
Protein MENT	Q9BUN1	[Function: Involved in control of cellular proliferation. Onconcogenic modifier contributing to the tumor suppressor function of DNMT3B.]
Synaptotagmin-6	Q62746	[Function: May be involved in Ca(2+)-dependent exocytosis of secretory vesicles through Ca(2+) and phospholipid binding to the C2 domain or may serve as Ca(2+) sensors in the process of vesicular trafficking and exocytosis. May mediate Ca(2+)-regulation of exocytosis in acrosomal reaction in sperm (By similarity).]
Synaptotagmin-7	Q62747	[Function: Ca(2+) sensor involved in Ca(2+)-dependent exocytosis of secretory and synaptic vesicles through Ca(2+) and phospholipid binding to the C2 domain (PubMed:11395007, PubMed:10725327, PubMed:11511344). Ca(2+) induces binding of the C2-domains to phospholipid membranes and to assembled SNARE-complexes; both actions contribute to triggering exocytosis (PubMed:11395007). SYT7 binds Ca(2+) with high affinity and slow kinetics compared to other synaptotagmins (By similarity). Involved in Ca(2+)-triggered lysosomal exocytosis, a major component of the plasma membrane repair (PubMed:10725327, PubMed:11511344). Ca(2+)-regulated delivery of lysosomal membranes to the cell surface is also involved in the phagocytic uptake of particles by macrophages. Ca(2+)-triggered lysosomal exocytosis also plays a role in bone remodeling by regulating secretory pathways in osteoclasts and osteoblasts. Involved in cholesterol transport from lysosome to peroxisome by promoting membrane contacts between lysosomes and peroxisomes: probably acts by promoting vesicle fusion by binding phosphatidylinositol-4,5-bisphosphate on peroxisomal membranes. Acts as a key mediator of synaptic facilitation, a process also named short-term synaptic potentiation: synaptic facilitation takes place at synapses with a low initial release probability and is caused by influx of Ca(2+) into the axon terminal after spike generation, increasing the release probability of neurotransmitters. Probably mediates synaptic facilitation by directly increasing the probability of release. May also contribute to synaptic facilitation by regulating synaptic vesicle replenishment, a process required to ensure that synaptic vesicles are ready for the arrival of the next action potential: SYT7 is required for synaptic vesicle replenishment by acting as a sensor for Ca(2+) and by forming a complex with calmodulin. Also acts as a regulator of Ca(2+)-dependent insulin and glucagon secretion in beta-cells. Triggers exocytosis by promoting fusion pore opening and fusion pore expansion in chromaffin cells (By similarity). Also regulates the secretion of some non-synaptic secretory granules of specialized cells (PubMed:15456748).]
Casein kinase I isoform gamma-3	Q9Y6M4	[Function: Serine/threonine-protein kinase. Casein kinases are operationally defined by their preferential utilization of acidic proteins such as caseins as substrates. It can phosphorylate a large number of proteins. Participates in Wnt signaling. Regulates fast synaptic transmission mediated by glutamate (By similarity).]