Terminology Service < Semantic Lookup Platform

All terms in UNIPROT

Label	Id	Description
ADP/ATP translocase 1	P48962	[Function: Involved in mitochondrial ADP/ATP transport. Catalyzes the exchange of cytoplasmic ADP with mitochondrial ATP across the mitochondrial inner membrane.]
UPF0705 protein C11orf49 homolog	Q8BHR8
CD97 antigen	P48960	[Function: Receptor potentially involved in both adhesion and signaling processes early after leukocyte activation. Plays an essential role in leukocyte migration (By similarity).]
Ribose-phosphate pyrophosphokinase 2	P09330	[Function: Catalyzes the synthesis of phosphoribosylpyrophosphate (PRPP) that is essential for nucleotide synthesis.]
G1/S-specific cyclin-D3	P48961	[Function: Regulatory component of the cyclin D3-CDK4 (DC) complex that phosphorylates and inhibits members of the retinoblastoma (RB) protein family including RB1 and regulates the cell-cycle during G(1)/S transition. Phosphorylation of RB1 allows dissociation of the transcription factor E2F from the RB/E2F complex and the subsequent transcription of E2F target genes which are responsible for the progression through the G(1) phase. Hypophosphorylates RB1 in early G(1) phase. Cyclin D-CDK4 complexes are major integrators of various mitogenenic and antimitogenic signals. Also substrate for SMAD3, phosphorylating SMAD3 in a cell-cycle-dependent manner and repressing its transcriptional activity. Component of the ternary complex, cyclin D3/CDK4/CDKN1B, required for nuclear translocation and activity of the cyclin D-CDK4 complex.]
M-phase inducer phosphatase 2	P48966	[Function: Tyrosine protein phosphatase which functions as a dosage-dependent inducer of mitotic progression. Required for G2/M phases of the cell cycle progression and abscission during cytokinesis in a ECT2-dependent manner. Directly dephosphorylates CDK1 and stimulates its kinase activity (By similarity).]
Zinc finger protein 629	Q6A085	[Function: May be involved in transcriptional regulation.]
M-phase inducer phosphatase 3	P48967	[Function: Functions as a dosage-dependent inducer in mitotic control. Tyrosine protein phosphatase required for progression of the cell cycle. Directly dephosphorylates CDK1 and activates its kinase activity. When phosphorylated, highly effective in activating G2 cells into prophase (By similarity). May be involved in regulating the proliferation of T-lymphocytes following cytokine stimulation.]
Type 2 lactosamine alpha-2,3-sialyltransferase	P61943	[Function: Involved in the synthesis of sialyl-paragloboside, a precursor of sialyl-Lewis X determinant. Has a alpha-2,3-sialyltransferase activity toward Gal-beta1,4-GlcNAc structure on glycoproteins and glycolipids. Has a restricted substrate specificity, it utilizes Gal-beta1,4-GlcNAc on glycoproteins, and neolactotetraosylceramide and neolactohexaosylceramide, but not lactotetraosylceramide, lactosylceramide or asialo-GM1 (By similarity).]
M-phase inducer phosphatase 1	P48964	[Function: Tyrosine protein phosphatase which functions as a dosage-dependent inducer of mitotic progression. Directly dephosphorylates CDK1 and stimulates its kinase activity. Also dephosphorylates CDK2 in complex with cyclin E, in vitro (By similarity). Phosphorylation by PIM1 leads to an increase in phosphatase activity (By similarity).]
JNK1/MAPK8-associated membrane protein	Q8BI36	[Function: May be a regulator of the duration of MAPK8 activity in response to various stress stimuli. Facilitates degradation of misfolded endoplasmic reticulum (ER) luminal proteins through the recruitment of components of the proteasome and endoplasmic reticulum-associated degradation (ERAD) system.]
G-protein-signaling modulator 1	Q9R080	[Function: Guanine nucleotide dissociation inhibitor (GDI) which functions as a receptor-independent activator of heterotrimeric G-protein signaling. Keeps G(i/o) alpha subunit in its GDP-bound form thus uncoupling heterotrimeric G-proteins signaling from G protein-coupled receptors. Controls spindle orientation and asymmetric cell fate of cerebral cortical progenitors. May also be involved in macroautophagy in intestinal cells. May play a role in drug addiction.]
M-phase inducer phosphatase 1	P48965	[Function: Tyrosine protein phosphatase which functions as a dosage-dependent inducer of mitotic progression. Directly dephosphorylates CDK1 and stimulates its kinase activity. Also dephosphorylates CDK2 in complex with cyclin E, in vitro (By similarity). Phosphorylation by PIM1 leads to an increase in phosphatase activity.]
Cytosolic Fe-S cluster assembly factor NUBP1	Q9R060	[Function: Component of the cytosolic iron-sulfur (Fe/S) protein assembly (CIA) machinery. Required for maturation of extramitochondrial Fe-S proteins. The NUBP1-NUBP2 heterotetramer forms a Fe-S scaffold complex, mediating the de novo assembly of an Fe-S cluster and its transfer to target apoproteins (By similarity). Implicated in the regulation of centrosome duplication (PubMed:16638812, PubMed:23807208). Negatively regulates cilium formation and structure (PubMed:23807208).]
Syncytin-B	Q8BI41	[Function: This endogenous retroviral envelope protein has retained its original fusogenic properties (PubMed:15644441, PubMed:18077339, PubMed:22032925, PubMed:27589388). Together with Syna, participates in trophoblast fusion and the formation of a syncytium during placenta morphogenesis (PubMed:22032925). Synb is specifically involved in formation of syncytiotrophoblast layer II (SynT-II) (PubMed:22032925). Promotes myoblast fusion, and may play a role in regeneration of damaged muscle tissue in males (PubMed:27589388). May have immunosuppressive activity (PubMed:18077339).]
TOG array regulator of axonemal microtubules protein 1	Q6A070	[Function: Required for normal structure and function of primary cilia. Plays a role in the organization of axoneme microtubule bundles in primary cilia (By similarity). Interacts with microtubules and promotes microtubule polymerization via its HEAT repeat domains, especially those in TOG region 2 and 4 (PubMed:26378256).]
Islet amyloid polypeptide	P12969	[Function: Selectively inhibits insulin-stimulated glucose utilization and glycogen deposition in muscle, while not affecting adipocyte glucose metabolism.]
Insulin-induced gene 2 protein	Q80UA9	[Function: Mediates feedback control of cholesterol synthesis by controlling SCAP and HMGCR. Functions by blocking the processing of sterol regulatory element-binding proteins (SREBPs). Capable of retaining the SCAP-SREBF2 complex in the ER thus preventing it from escorting SREBPs to the Golgi. Seems to regulate the ubiquitin-mediated proteasomal degradation of HMGCR (By similarity).]
Glycogenin-1	Q9R062	[Function: Self-glucosylates, via an inter-subunit mechanism, to form an oligosaccharide primer that serves as substrate for glycogen synthase.]
Pre-mRNA-splicing factor RBM22	Q8BHS3	[Function: Required for pre-mRNA splicing as component of the activated spliceosome. Involved in the first step of pre-mRNA splicing. Binds directly to the internal stem-loop (ISL) domain of the U6 snRNA and to the pre-mRNA intron near the 5' splice site during the activation and catalytic phases of the spliceosome cycle. Involved in both translocations of the nuclear SLU7 to the cytoplasm and the cytosolic calcium-binding protein PDCD6 to the nucleus upon cellular stress responses.]