Terminology Service < Semantic Lookup Platform

All terms in UNIPROT

Label	Id	Description
Upstream stimulatory factor 1	P22415	[Function: Transcription factor that binds to a symmetrical DNA sequence (E-boxes) (5'-CACGTG-3') that is found in a variety of viral and cellular promoters.]
Transcription factor jun-B	P09450	[Function: Transcription factor involved in regulating gene activity following the primary growth factor response. Binds to the DNA sequence 5'-TGA[CG]TCA-3'.]
Zinc finger and SCAN domain-containing protein 26	Q5RJ54	[Function: May be involved in transcriptional regulation.]
Malonyl-CoA decarboxylase, mitochondrial	Q99J39	[Function: Catalyzes the conversion of malonyl-CoA to acetyl-CoA. In the fatty acid biosynthesis MCD selectively removes malonyl-CoA and thus assures that methyl-malonyl-CoA is the only chain elongating substrate for fatty acid synthase and that fatty acids with multiple methyl side chains are produced. In peroxisomes it may be involved in degrading intraperoxisomal malonyl-CoA, which is generated by the peroxisomal beta-oxidation of odd chain-length dicarboxylic fatty acids. Plays a role in the metabolic balance between glucose and lipid oxidation in muscle independent of alterations in insulin signaling. Plays a role in controlling the extent of ischemic injury by promoting glucose oxidation.]
Ectonucleotide pyrophosphatase/phosphodiesterase family member 1	P22413	[Function: Nucleotide pyrophosphatase that generates diphosphate (PPi) and functions in bone mineralization and soft tissue calcification by regulating pyrophosphate levels (By similarity). PPi inhibits bone mineralization and soft tissue calcification by binding to nascent hydroxyapatite crystals, thereby preventing further growth of these crystals (PubMed:11004006). Preferentially hydrolyzes ATP, but can also hydrolyze other nucleoside 5' triphosphates such as GTP, CTP, TTP and UTP to their corresponding monophosphates with release of pyrophosphate and diadenosine polyphosphates, and also 3',5'-cAMP to AMP (PubMed:27467858, PubMed:8001561, PubMed:25344812). May also be involved in the regulation of the availability of nucleotide sugars in the endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi, and the regulation of purinergic signaling (PubMed:27467858, PubMed:8001561). Inhibits ectopic joint calcification and maintains articular chondrocytes by repressing hedgehog signaling; it is however unclear whether hedgehog inhibition is direct or indirect (By similarity). Appears to modulate insulin sensitivity and function (PubMed:10615944). Also involved in melanogenesis (PubMed:28964717). Also able to hydrolyze 2'-3'-cGAMP (cyclic GMP-AMP), a second messenger that activates TMEM173/STING and triggers type-I interferon production (PubMed:25344812). 2'-3'-cGAMP degradation takes place in the lumen or extracellular space, and not in the cytosol where it is produced; the role of 2'-3'-cGAMP hydrolysis is therefore unclear (PubMed:25344812). Not able to hydrolyze the 2'-3'-cGAMP linkage isomer 3'-3'-cGAMP (PubMed:25344812).]
Patatin-like phospholipase domain-containing protein 2	Q8BJ56	[Function: Catalyzes the initial step in triglyceride hydrolysis in adipocyte and non-adipocyte lipid droplets (PubMed:15550674). Also has acylglycerol transacylase activity. May act coordinately with LIPE/HLS within the lipolytic cascade. Regulates adiposome size and may be involved in the degradation of adiposomes. May play an important role in energy homeostasis. May play a role in the response of the organism to starvation, enhancing hydrolysis of triglycerides and providing free fatty acids to other tissues to be oxidized in situations of energy depletion.]
Retinol-binding protein 1	P09455	[Function: Cytoplasmic retinol-binding protein (PubMed:22665496, PubMed:26900151, PubMed:28057518). Accepts retinol from the transport protein STRA6, and thereby contributes to retinol uptake, storage and retinoid homeostasis (PubMed:15632377, PubMed:22665496).]
Acid-sensing ion channel 5	Q9R0Y1	[Function: Cation channel that gives rise to very low constitutive currents in the absence of activation. The activated channel exhibits selectivity for sodium and lithium, and is inhibited by amiloride (By similarity).]
Glutathione S-transferase P 2	P46425	[Function: Conjugation of reduced glutathione to a wide number of exogenous and endogenous hydrophobic electrophiles. Cannot metabolize 1-chloro-2,4-dinitrobenzene.]
cAMP-dependent protein kinase type I-alpha regulatory subunit	P09456	[Function: Regulatory subunit of the cAMP-dependent protein kinases involved in cAMP signaling in cells.]
Histamine H3 receptor	P58406	[Function: The H3 subclass of histamine receptors could mediate the histamine signals in CNS and peripheral nervous system. Signals through the inhibition of adenylate cyclase and displays high constitutive activity (spontaneous activity in the absence of agonist) (By similarity).]
Calmodulin-regulated spectrin-associated protein 3	Q80VC9	[Function: Key microtubule-organizing protein that specifically binds the minus-end of non-centrosomal microtubules and regulates their dynamics and organization (PubMed:23169647, PubMed:24706919, PubMed:26715742). Specifically recognizes growing microtubule minus-ends and autonomously decorates and stabilizes microtubule lattice formed by microtubule minus-end polymerization (PubMed:24706919). Acts on free microtubule minus-ends that are not capped by microtubule-nucleating proteins or other factors and protects microtubule minus-ends from depolymerization (PubMed:24706919). In addition, it also reduces the velocity of microtubule polymerization (PubMed:24706919). Required for the biogenesis and the maintenance of zonula adherens by anchoring the minus-end of microtubules to zonula adherens and by recruiting the kinesin KIFC3 to those junctional sites (By similarity). Required for orienting the apical-to-basal polarity of microtubules in epithelial cells: acts by tethering non-centrosomal microtubules to the apical cortex, leading to their longitudinal orientation (PubMed:26715742). Plays a key role in early embryos, which lack centrosomes: accumulates at the microtubule bridges that connect pairs of cells and enables the formation of a non-centrosomal microtubule-organizing center that directs intracellular transport in the early embryo (PubMed:28860385). Couples non-centrosomal microtubules with actin: interaction with MACF1 at the minus ends of non-centrosomal microtubules, tethers the microtubules to actin filaments, regulating focal adhesion size and cell migration (By similarity). Plays a key role in the generation of non-centrosomal microtubules by accumulating in the pericentrosomal region and cooperating with KATNA1 to release non-centrosomal microtubules from the centrosome (By similarity). Through the microtubule cytoskeleton, also regulates the organization of cellular organelles including the Golgi and the early endosomes (By similarity). Through the microtubule cytoskeleton, also regulates the organization of cellular organelles including the Golgi and the early endosomes (By similarity). Through interaction with AKAP9, involved in translocation of Golgi vesicles in epithelial cells, where microtubules are mainly non-centrosomal (By similarity).]
Pituitary homeobox 2	Q9R0W1	[Function: Controls cell proliferation in a tissue-specific manner and is involved in morphogenesis. During embryonic development, exerts a role in the expansion of muscle progenitors. May play a role in the proper localization of asymmetric organs such as the heart and stomach (By similarity).]
AP-5 complex subunit mu-1	Q8BJ63	[Function: As part of AP-5, a probable fifth adaptor protein complex it may be involved in endosomal transport.]
Choline dehydrogenase, mitochondrial	Q8BJ64
Solute carrier family 22 member 2	Q9R0W2	[Function: Mediates tubular uptake of organic compounds from circulation. Mediates the influx of agmatine, serotonin, choline, ranitidine, histamine, creatinine, amantadine, memantine, acriflavine, 4-[4-(dimethylamino)-styryl]-N-methylpyridinium ASP and amiloride (By similarity). Mediates the influx of adrenaline, noradrenaline (norepinephrine), dopamine, cimetidine, famotidine, metformin, N-1-methylnicotinamide (NMN), 1-methyl-4-phenylpyridinium (MPP), tetraethylammonium (TEA), oxaliplatin and cisplatin. Cisplatin may develop a nephrotoxic action. Transport of creatinine is inhibited by fluoroquinolones such as DX-619 and LVFX. This transporter is a major determinant of the anticancer activity of oxaliplatin and may contribute to antitumor specificity.]
Angiopoietin-related protein 3	Q9R182	[Function: Involved in angiogenesis (PubMed:11877390). Binds to endothelial cells via integrin alpha-V/beta-3 (ITGAV:ITGB3), activates FAK, MAPK and Akt signaling pathways and induces cell adhesion and cell migration (By similarity). May increase the motility of podocytes. Secreted from podocytes, may modulate properties of glomerular endothelial cells involving integrin alpha-V/beta-3 and Akt signaling (By similarity). May induce actin filament rearrangements in podocytes implicating integrin alpha-V/beta-3 and Rac1 activation (PubMed:20633534, PubMed:24294595, PubMed:25710887). Binds to hematopoietic stem cells (HSC) and is involved in the regulation of HSC activity probably implicating down-regulation of IKZF1/IKAROS (PubMed:20959605).]
Acid-sensing ion channel 5	Q9R0W5	[Function: Cation channel that gives rise to very low constitutive currents in the absence of activation. The activated channel exhibits selectivity for sodium and lithium, and is inhibited by amiloride.]
tRNA selenocysteine 1-associated protein 1	Q80VC6	[Function: Involved in the early steps of selenocysteine biosynthesis and tRNA(Sec) charging to the later steps resulting in the cotranslational incorporation of selenocysteine into selenoproteins. Stabilizes the SECISBP2, EEFSEC and tRNA(Sec) complex. May be involved in the methylation of tRNA(Sec). Enhances efficiency of selenoproteins synthesis.]
Tumor necrosis factor receptor superfamily member EDAR	Q9R187	[Function: Receptor for EDA isoform TAA, but not for EDA isoform TA-2 (By similarity). May mediate the activation of NF-kappa-B and JNK. May promote caspase-independent cell death.]